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0
|
What type of organism is commonly used in preparation of foods such as cheese and yogurt?
|
[
"A. gymnosperms",
"B. protozoa",
"C. viruses",
"D. mesophilic organisms"
] |
D. mesophilic organisms
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: This includes further education about microbial, molecular and cell biology. Classes can include cell biology, virology, microbial and plant biology
Document 3 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 4 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 5 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 6 ::: Astro microbiology: the study of microorganisms in outer space Biological agent: the study of those microorganisms which are being used in weapon industries. Nano microbiology: the study of those microscopic organisms on nano level. Predictive microbiology: the quantification of relations between controlling factors in foods and responses of pathogenic and spoilage microorganisms using mathematical modelling
Document 7 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 8 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 9 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 10 ::: The yeast species Saccharomyces cerevisiae is an important model organism in cell biology. The fruiting bodies of some larger fungi are collected as edible mushrooms, including delicacies like the chanterelle, cep, and truffle, while a few species are cultivated. Mould fungi provide the meaty (umami) flavour of fermented soybean products such as tempeh, miso and soy sauce, and contribute flavour and colour to blue cheeses including Roquefort and Stilton.
|
1
|
What phenomenon makes global winds blow northeast to southwest or the reverse in the northern hemisphere and northwest to southeast or the reverse in the southern hemisphere?
|
[
"A. centrifugal effect",
"B. muon effect",
"C. coriolis effect",
"D. tropical effect"
] |
C. coriolis effect
|
Document 1 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 2 ::: Extratropical cyclones in meridional flows tend to be stronger and move slower. This pattern is responsible for most instances of extreme weather, as not only are storms stronger in this type of flow regime, but temperatures can reach extremes as well, producing heat waves and cold waves depending on the equator-ward or poleward direction of the flow. For vector fields (such as wind velocity), the zonal component (or x-coordinate) is denoted as u, while the meridional component (or y-coordinate) is denoted as v. In plasma physics Zonal flow (plasma) means poloidal, which is the opposite from the meaning in planetary atmospheres and weather/climate studies.
Document 3 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 4 ::: Hestenes (1998) found that while "nearly 80% of the could state Newton's Third Law at the beginning of the course, FCI data showed that less than 15% of them fully understood it at the end". These results have been replicated in a number of studies involving students at a range of institutions (see sources section below), and have led to greater recognition in the physics education research community of the importance of students' "active engagement" with the materials to be mastered. The 1995 version has 30 five-way multiple choice questions.Example question (question 4): A large truck collides head-on with a small compact car.
Document 5 ::: Coriolis effect Circulation Kelvin's circulation theorem Vorticity equation Thermal wind Geostrophic current Geostrophic wind Taylor–Proudman theorem Hydrostatic equilibrium Ekman spiral Ekman layer
Document 6 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 7 ::: geomagnetic storm (geomagnetism: see) Earth's magnetic field geospatial technology (Spatial Information Technology) Geostationary Operational Environmental Satellite (GOES) (a program of the US) geostatistics geostrophic wind Global Atmosphere Watch (GAW) Global Forecast System (GFS) global warming greenhouse effect greenhouse gas (GHG) growing degree day (GDD) growing season gust front
Document 8 ::: Conceptual problems are often formulated as multiple-choice questions, making them easy to use during in-class discussions, particularly when utilizing active learning, peer instruction, and audience response. An example of a conceptual question in undergraduate thermodynamics is provided below: During adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, its temperatureincreases decreases stays the same Impossible to tell/need more information The use of conceptual questions in physics was popularized by Eric Mazur, particularly in the form of multiple-choice tests that he called ConcepTests.
Document 9 ::: Pacific decadal oscillation paleoclimatology paleomagnetism paleotempestology parts-per notation photovore planetary boundary layer (PBL) pluvial lake pneumonia front polar circle polar climate polar easterlies polar high polar ice cap (polar light: see) aurora (astronomy) polar low (polar mesospheric cloud) noctilucent cloud polar mesospheric summer echoes (PMSE) polar night polar region (polar reversal) magnetic polarity reversal polar stratospheric cloud (PSC) (nacreous cloud) polar vortex Polarization (waves) (see under Polarization effects in everyday life) pole shift theory positive streamer post-glacial rebound potential evaporation potential temperature precipitation pressure gradient pressure gradient force (PGF) pyrocumulus
Document 10 ::: : 715 "Gravity, geology, and the specific orbit of the moon lead to the tidal patterns of the Earth's oceans and thus to both the environment in which early life evolved and in which tsunamis bring death and destruction to countless thousands of people". : 717–718 Holmes Rolston III says nature embodies 'redemptive suffering' as exemplified by Jesus.
|
2
|
Changes from a less-ordered state to a more-ordered state (such as a liquid to a solid) are always what?
|
[
"A. unbalanced",
"B. exothermic",
"C. endothermic",
"D. reactive"
] |
B. exothermic
|
Document 1 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 2 ::: Typically, the topics are, in order, descriptive chemistry/laboratory techniques, stoichiometry, gases/liquids/solids, thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibrium, electrochemistry, electronic structure/periodic trends, bonding theories, and organic chemistry. There is no penalty for guessing; a student's score is equal to the number of questions answered correctly. One and a half hours (90 minutes) are allotted for this first part.
Document 3 ::: Conceptual problems are often formulated as multiple-choice questions, making them easy to use during in-class discussions, particularly when utilizing active learning, peer instruction, and audience response. An example of a conceptual question in undergraduate thermodynamics is provided below: During adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, its temperatureincreases decreases stays the same Impossible to tell/need more information The use of conceptual questions in physics was popularized by Eric Mazur, particularly in the form of multiple-choice tests that he called ConcepTests.
Document 4 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 5 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 6 ::: Hestenes (1998) found that while "nearly 80% of the could state Newton's Third Law at the beginning of the course, FCI data showed that less than 15% of them fully understood it at the end". These results have been replicated in a number of studies involving students at a range of institutions (see sources section below), and have led to greater recognition in the physics education research community of the importance of students' "active engagement" with the materials to be mastered. The 1995 version has 30 five-way multiple choice questions.Example question (question 4): A large truck collides head-on with a small compact car.
Document 7 ::: These are conceptual ranking-task questions that help the student before embarking on numerical calculations. The textbook covers most of the basic topics in physics: Mechanics Waves Thermodynamics Electromagnetism Optics Special RelativityThe extended edition also contains introductions to topics such as quantum mechanics, atomic theory, solid-state physics, nuclear physics and cosmology. A solutions manual and a study guide are also available.
Document 8 ::: The 2014 AP Chemistry exam was the first administration of a redesigned test as a result of a redesigning of the AP Chemistry course. The exam format is now different from the previous years, with 60 multiple choice questions (now with only four answer choices per question), 3 long free response questions, and 4 short free response questions. The new exam has a focus on longer, more in depth, lab-based questions. The penalty for incorrect answers on the multiple choice section was also removed. More detailed information can be found at the related link.
Document 9 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 10 ::: b. What did the scientist criticize a proof of? c. What did the scientist criticize the proof of? d. Why did the scientist criticize Max's proof of the theorem?
|
3
|
What is the least dangerous radioactive decay?
|
[
"A. gamma decay",
"B. zeta decay",
"C. alpha decay",
"D. beta decay"
] |
C. alpha decay
|
Document 1 ::: The first three have similar half-lives, between 200 thousand and 300 thousand years; the last four have longer half-lives, in the low millions of years. Technetium-99 produces the largest amount of LLFP radioactivity. It emits beta particles of low to medium energy but no gamma rays, so has little hazard on external exposure, but only if ingested. However, technetium's chemistry allows it to form anions (pertechnetate, TcO4−) that are relatively mobile in the environment.
Document 2 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 3 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 4 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 5 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 6 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 7 ::: This damages can develop pathologies like cancer.Low radioactivity measurements: the new generation of detectors used in the dark matter and neutrino underground experiments require the ability to measure extremely low radiation levels. These measurements are also useful in multiple areas like ecology, glaciology, microelectronics and in the selection of pure materials with almost no radioactive content. Nuclear astrophysics can also be researched with dedicated equipment.
Document 8 ::: Hestenes (1998) found that while "nearly 80% of the could state Newton's Third Law at the beginning of the course, FCI data showed that less than 15% of them fully understood it at the end". These results have been replicated in a number of studies involving students at a range of institutions (see sources section below), and have led to greater recognition in the physics education research community of the importance of students' "active engagement" with the materials to be mastered. The 1995 version has 30 five-way multiple choice questions.Example question (question 4): A large truck collides head-on with a small compact car.
Document 9 ::: Atomic structure/Radioactivity/Radioactive decay Interaction of radiation with matter Internal dosimetry/Internal dose calculations Biological effects of ionizing radiation NRC, OSHA, Regulations/Standards ICRU, ICRP, NCRP Radiation Risk, BEIR III, IV, V, VI External dose calculations/External dosimetry Statistics Instrumentation Low Level Wastes, Fuel Cycle, DOT Regulations Shielding and Activation Air sampling/Modeling/Environmental Health Physics Medical Health Physics and X-ray Protection Reactor Health Physics/Criticality Accelerator Health Physics Lasers, UV, Microwave, RF Radon
Document 10 ::: The stability of nuclei decreases greatly with the increase in atomic number after curium, element 96, whose half-life is four orders of magnitude longer than that of any currently known higher-numbered element. All isotopes with an atomic number above 101 undergo radioactive decay with half-lives of less than 30 hours. No elements with atomic numbers above 82 (after lead) have stable isotopes. Nevertheless, because of reasons not yet well understood, there is a slight increase of nuclear stability around atomic numbers 110–114, which leads to the appearance of what is known in nuclear physics as the "island of stability".
|
4
|
Kilauea in hawaii is the world’s most continuously active volcano. very active volcanoes characteristically eject red-hot rocks and lava rather than this?
|
[
"A. magma",
"B. carbon and smog",
"C. smoke and ash",
"D. greenhouse gases"
] |
C. smoke and ash
|
Document 1 ::: : 715 "Gravity, geology, and the specific orbit of the moon lead to the tidal patterns of the Earth's oceans and thus to both the environment in which early life evolved and in which tsunamis bring death and destruction to countless thousands of people". : 717–718 Holmes Rolston III says nature embodies 'redemptive suffering' as exemplified by Jesus.
Document 2 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 3 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 4 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 5 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 6 ::: C: Frank Wigglesworth Clarke of USGS and Henry Stephens Washington U: United States Geological Survey (USGS) B: Georg Ernst Wilhelm Berg F: Alexander Fersman G: Victor Goldschmidt M: Brian Mason K: Kenjiro Kimura H: Research on the history of chemistry
Document 7 ::: Determine what geologic processes have shaped the local terrain and influenced the chemistry. Such processes could include water or wind erosion, sedimentation, hydrothermal mechanisms, volcanism, and cratering.
Document 8 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 9 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 10 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
|
5
|
When a meteoroid reaches earth, what is the remaining object called?
|
[
"A. meteor",
"B. comet",
"C. meteorite",
"D. orbit"
] |
C. meteorite
|
Document 1 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 2 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 3 ::: The SAT Subject Test in Physics had 75 questions and consisted of two parts: Part A and Part B. Part A: First 12 or 13 questions 4 groups of two to four questions each The questions within any one group all relate to a single situation. Five possible answer choices are given before the question. An answer choice can be used once, more than once, or not at all in each group.Part B: Last 62 or 63 questions Each question has five possible answer choice with one correct answer. Some questions may be in groups of two or three.
Document 4 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 5 ::: Astronomy Weather and Nature Meteors and meteorites
Document 6 ::: Hestenes (1998) found that while "nearly 80% of the could state Newton's Third Law at the beginning of the course, FCI data showed that less than 15% of them fully understood it at the end". These results have been replicated in a number of studies involving students at a range of institutions (see sources section below), and have led to greater recognition in the physics education research community of the importance of students' "active engagement" with the materials to be mastered. The 1995 version has 30 five-way multiple choice questions.Example question (question 4): A large truck collides head-on with a small compact car.
Document 7 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 8 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 9 ::: : 715 "Gravity, geology, and the specific orbit of the moon lead to the tidal patterns of the Earth's oceans and thus to both the environment in which early life evolved and in which tsunamis bring death and destruction to countless thousands of people". : 717–718 Holmes Rolston III says nature embodies 'redemptive suffering' as exemplified by Jesus.
Document 10 ::: The SAT Subject Test in Physics, Physics SAT II, or simply the Physics SAT, was a one-hour multiple choice test on physics administered by the College Board in the United States. A high school student generally chose to take the test to fulfill college entrance requirements for the schools at which the student was planning to apply. Until 1994, the SAT Subject Tests were known as Achievement Tests; until January 2005, they were known as SAT IIs; they are still well known by this name. The material tested on the Physics SAT was supposed to be equivalent to that taught in a junior- or senior-level high school physics class.
|
6
|
What kind of a reaction occurs when a substance reacts quickly with oxygen?
|
[
"A. nitrogen reaction",
"B. Fluid Reaction",
"C. invention reaction",
"D. combustion reaction"
] |
D. combustion reaction
|
Document 1 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 2 ::: Typically, the topics are, in order, descriptive chemistry/laboratory techniques, stoichiometry, gases/liquids/solids, thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibrium, electrochemistry, electronic structure/periodic trends, bonding theories, and organic chemistry. There is no penalty for guessing; a student's score is equal to the number of questions answered correctly. One and a half hours (90 minutes) are allotted for this first part.
Document 3 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 4 ::: The second part contains 8 free response questions. Complete written explanations and calculations are required for full credit on a question, and partial credit is awarded. More thorough knowledge of basic theories is required, and often there are questions on less-emphasized portions of normal high school chemistry curricula, such as organic chemistry and coordination chemistry. One hour and 45 minutes (105 minutes) are allowed for this section.
Document 5 ::: The 2014 AP Chemistry exam was the first administration of a redesigned test as a result of a redesigning of the AP Chemistry course. The exam format is now different from the previous years, with 60 multiple choice questions (now with only four answer choices per question), 3 long free response questions, and 4 short free response questions. The new exam has a focus on longer, more in depth, lab-based questions. The penalty for incorrect answers on the multiple choice section was also removed. More detailed information can be found at the related link.
Document 6 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 7 ::: A chemical reaction is a process that leads to the chemical transformation of one set of chemical substances to another. Classically, chemical reactions encompass changes that only involve the positions of electrons in the forming and breaking of chemical bonds between atoms, with no change to the nuclei (no change to the elements present), and can often be described by a chemical equation. Nuclear chemistry is a sub-discipline of chemistry that involves the chemical reactions of unstable and radioactive elements where both electronic and nuclear changes can occur. The substance (or substances) initially involved in a chemical reaction are called reactants or reagents.
Document 8 ::: After the on-line questions, students will take a test about what they have learned while solving the on-line questions. First grade students in high school take this test. The questions are based on basic chemistry. The test can determine how much the students understand basic chemistry.
Document 9 ::: Conceptual problems are often formulated as multiple-choice questions, making them easy to use during in-class discussions, particularly when utilizing active learning, peer instruction, and audience response. An example of a conceptual question in undergraduate thermodynamics is provided below: During adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, its temperatureincreases decreases stays the same Impossible to tell/need more information The use of conceptual questions in physics was popularized by Eric Mazur, particularly in the form of multiple-choice tests that he called ConcepTests.
Document 10 ::: After this initial chemistry, three main global reactions occur. Combustion products react catalytically with syngas by the water-gas shift reaction. Also, volatile organics react catalytically with steam (H2O) to form new combustion products and syngas.
|
7
|
Organisms categorized by what species descriptor demonstrate a version of allopatric speciation and have limited regions of overlap with one another, but where they overlap they interbreed successfully?.
|
[
"A. ring species",
"B. surface species",
"C. fitting species",
"D. species complex"
] |
A. ring species
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 3 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 4 ::: A simple textbook definition, following Mayr's concept, works well for most multi-celled organisms, but breaks down in several situations: When organisms reproduce asexually, as in single-celled organisms such as bacteria and other prokaryotes, and parthenogenetic or apomictic multi-celled organisms. DNA barcoding and phylogenetics are commonly used in these cases. The term quasispecies is sometimes used for rapidly mutating entities like viruses. When scientists do not know whether two morphologically similar groups of organisms are capable of interbreeding; this is the case with all extinct life-forms in palaeontology, as breeding experiments are not possible.
Document 5 ::: Hybrid speciation can be a component in the evolution of a species complex. Species complexes exist in all groups of organisms and are identified by the rigorous study of differences between individual species that uses minute morphological details, tests of reproductive isolation, or DNA-based methods, such as molecular phylogenetics and DNA barcoding. The existence of extremely similar species may cause local and global species diversity to be underestimated. The recognition of similar-but-distinct species is important for disease and pest control and in conservation biology although the drawing of dividing lines between species can be inherently difficult.
Document 6 ::: For example, a multiple-choice exam designed to assess knowledge of key concepts in natural selection does not meet a number of standards of quality control. One problem with the exam is that the two members of each of several pairs of parallel items, with each pair designed to measure exactly one key concept in natural selection, sometimes have very different levels of difficulty. Another problem is that the multiple-choice exam overestimates knowledge of natural selection as reflected in student performance on a diagnostic essay exam and a diagnostic oral exam, two instruments with reasonably good construct validity. Although scoring concept inventories in the form of essay or oral exams is labor-intensive, costly, and difficult to implement with large numbers of students, such exams can offer a more realistic appraisal of the actual levels of students' conceptual mastery as well as their misconceptions. Recently, however, computer technology has been developed that can score essay responses on concept inventories in biology and other domains, promising to facilitate the scoring of concept inventories organized as (transcribed) oral exams as well as essays.
Document 7 ::: This test consisted of 85 questions. The first 23 questions numbered 1-23 were 'classification questions'. The next 15 questions, numbered 101-115, were called 'relationship analysis questions'. The SAT Subject Test in Chemistry was currently the only SAT that incorporates the relationship analysis questions.
Document 8 ::: In genetics, attention is focused on the numbers of chromosomes. In taxonomy, a key question is how closely related the parent species are. Species are reproductively isolated by strong barriers to hybridization, which include genetic and morphological differences, differing times of fertility, mating behaviors and cues, and physiological rejection of sperm cells or the developing embryo.
Document 9 ::: It is more useful to think of a continuum, on which there are limitless levels of geographic and reproductive overlap between species. On one extreme is allopatry, in which the overlap is zero (no gene flow), and on the other extreme is sympatry, in which the ranges overlap completely (maximal gene flow). The varying definitions of sympatric speciation fall generally into two categories: definitions based on biogeography, or on population genetics.
Document 10 ::: The more advanced parts of the theory of species use differentiation extensively, to construct and solve differential equations on species and series. The idea of adding (or removing) a single part of a structure is a powerful one: it can be used to establish relationships between seemingly unconnected species. For example, consider a structure of the species L of linear orders—lists of elements of the ground set.
|
8
|
Alpha emission is a type of what?
|
[
"A. heat",
"B. radioactivity",
"C. light",
"D. radiation"
] |
B. radioactivity
|
Document 1 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 2 ::: These are conceptual ranking-task questions that help the student before embarking on numerical calculations. The textbook covers most of the basic topics in physics: Mechanics Waves Thermodynamics Electromagnetism Optics Special RelativityThe extended edition also contains introductions to topics such as quantum mechanics, atomic theory, solid-state physics, nuclear physics and cosmology. A solutions manual and a study guide are also available.
Document 3 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 4 ::: Conceptual problems are often formulated as multiple-choice questions, making them easy to use during in-class discussions, particularly when utilizing active learning, peer instruction, and audience response. An example of a conceptual question in undergraduate thermodynamics is provided below: During adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, its temperatureincreases decreases stays the same Impossible to tell/need more information The use of conceptual questions in physics was popularized by Eric Mazur, particularly in the form of multiple-choice tests that he called ConcepTests.
Document 5 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 6 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 7 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 8 ::: Hestenes (1998) found that while "nearly 80% of the could state Newton's Third Law at the beginning of the course, FCI data showed that less than 15% of them fully understood it at the end". These results have been replicated in a number of studies involving students at a range of institutions (see sources section below), and have led to greater recognition in the physics education research community of the importance of students' "active engagement" with the materials to be mastered. The 1995 version has 30 five-way multiple choice questions.Example question (question 4): A large truck collides head-on with a small compact car.
Document 9 ::: The SAT Subject Test in Physics had 75 questions and consisted of two parts: Part A and Part B. Part A: First 12 or 13 questions 4 groups of two to four questions each The questions within any one group all relate to a single situation. Five possible answer choices are given before the question. An answer choice can be used once, more than once, or not at all in each group.Part B: Last 62 or 63 questions Each question has five possible answer choice with one correct answer. Some questions may be in groups of two or three.
Document 10 ::: Multiple Choice and Free Response Sections of the AP® Physics 1 exam are also assessed on scientific practices. Below are tables representing the practices assessed and their weighting for both parts of the exam
|
9
|
What is the stored food in a seed called?
|
[
"A. endosperm",
"B. membrane",
"C. larval",
"D. pollin"
] |
A. endosperm
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 3 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 4 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 5 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 6 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 7 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 8 ::: The College Board suggested a year-long course in biology at the college preparatory level, as well as a one-year course in algebra, and lab experience as preparation for the test. The test required understanding of biological data and concepts, science-related terms, and the ability to effectively synthesize and interpret data from charts, maps, and other visual media. However, most questions from this test were derived from, or are similar to, the pre-2012 AP Biology multiple choice questions. By taking an AP class or a class with similar rigor, one's chances at doing well on this test should have improved.
Document 9 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 10 ::: Since many students who apply to graduate programs in biology do so during the first half of their fourth year, the scope of most questions is largely that of the first three years of a standard American undergraduate biology curriculum. A sampling of test item content is given below:
|
10
|
Zinc is more easily oxidized than iron because zinc has a lower reduction potential. since zinc has a lower reduction potential, it is a more what?
|
[
"A. much metal",
"B. Trap metal",
"C. active metal",
"D. usually metal"
] |
C. active metal
|
Document 1 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 2 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 3 ::: The second part contains 8 free response questions. Complete written explanations and calculations are required for full credit on a question, and partial credit is awarded. More thorough knowledge of basic theories is required, and often there are questions on less-emphasized portions of normal high school chemistry curricula, such as organic chemistry and coordination chemistry. One hour and 45 minutes (105 minutes) are allowed for this section.
Document 4 ::: Typically, the topics are, in order, descriptive chemistry/laboratory techniques, stoichiometry, gases/liquids/solids, thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibrium, electrochemistry, electronic structure/periodic trends, bonding theories, and organic chemistry. There is no penalty for guessing; a student's score is equal to the number of questions answered correctly. One and a half hours (90 minutes) are allotted for this first part.
Document 5 ::: Calculations indicate that a zinc compound with the oxidation state of +4 is unlikely to exist. Zn(III) is predicted to exist in the presence of strongly electronegative trianions; however, there exists some doubt around this possibility. But in 2021 another compound was reported with more evidence that had the oxidation state of +3 with the formula ZnBeB11(CN)12.Zinc chemistry is similar to the chemistry of the late first-row transition metals, nickel and copper, though it has a filled d-shell and compounds are diamagnetic and mostly colorless.
Document 6 ::: The 2014 AP Chemistry exam was the first administration of a redesigned test as a result of a redesigning of the AP Chemistry course. The exam format is now different from the previous years, with 60 multiple choice questions (now with only four answer choices per question), 3 long free response questions, and 4 short free response questions. The new exam has a focus on longer, more in depth, lab-based questions. The penalty for incorrect answers on the multiple choice section was also removed. More detailed information can be found at the related link.
Document 7 ::: Extremely pure zinc reacts only slowly at room temperature with acids. Strong acids, such as hydrochloric or sulfuric acid, can remove the passivating layer and the subsequent reaction with the acid releases hydrogen gas.The chemistry of zinc is dominated by the +2 oxidation state. When compounds in this oxidation state are formed, the outer shell s electrons are lost, yielding a bare zinc ion with the electronic configuration 3d10.
Document 8 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 9 ::: Faraday paradox (electrochemistry): Diluted nitric acid will corrode steel, while concentrated nitric acid will not. Levinthal paradox: The length of time that it takes for a protein chain to find its folded state is many orders of magnitude shorter than it would be if it freely searched all possible configurations. SAR paradox: Exceptions to the principle that a small change in a molecule causes a small change in its chemical behavior are frequently profound.
Document 10 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
|
11
|
What is controlled by both genes and experiences in a given envionment?
|
[
"A. reflexes",
"B. animal behaviors",
"C. learned behaviors",
"D. instincts"
] |
B. animal behaviors
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: In addition to examining how genetic mutations affect the actual structure of the brain, researchers in neurogenetics also examine how these mutations affect cognition and behavior. One method of examining this involves purposely engineering model organisms with mutations of certain genes of interest. These animals are then classically conditioned to perform certain types of tasks, such as pulling a lever in order to gain a reward. The speed of their learning, the retention of the learned behavior, and other factors are then compared to the results of healthy organisms to determine what kind of an effect – if any – the mutation has had on these higher processes. The results of this research can help identify genes that may be associated with conditions involving cognitive and learning deficiencies.
Document 3 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 4 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 5 ::: Genetics influence individuals as they select their environment.
Document 6 ::: To understand mathematical neurobiology, he felt he had to study cellular neurobiology; this, in turn, led to studying microbiology and eventually genetics. "When I finally feel I have learned genetics, I should get back to these other problems.
Document 7 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 8 ::: There also have been neurological investigations into specific learning and memory functions, such as Karl Lashley's study on mass action and serial interaction mechanisms. Important evidence against the tabula rasa model of the mind comes from behavioural genetics, especially twin and adoption studies (see below). These indicate strong genetic influences on personal characteristics such as IQ, alcoholism, gender identity, and other traits. Critically, multivariate studies show that the distinct faculties of the mind, such as memory and reason, fractionate along genetic boundaries. Cultural universals such as emotion and the relative resilience of psychological adaptation to accidental biological changes also support basic biological mechanisms in the mind.
Document 9 ::: Basic questions addressed in molecular neuroscience include the mechanisms by which neurons express and respond to molecular signals and how axons form complex connectivity patterns. At this level, tools from molecular biology and genetics are used to understand how neurons develop and how genetic changes affect biological functions. The morphology, molecular identity, and physiological characteristics of neurons and how they relate to different types of behavior are also of considerable interest.Questions addressed in cellular neuroscience include the mechanisms of how neurons process signals physiologically and electrochemically.
Document 10 ::: These techniques allow behavioural geneticists different levels of control in the model organism's genome, to evaluate the molecular, physiological, or behavioural outcome of genetic changes. Animals commonly used as model organisms in behavioural genetics include mice, zebra fish, and the nematode species C. elegans.Machine learning and A.I. developments are allowing researchers to design experiments that are able to manage the complexity and large data sets generated, allowing for increasingly complex behavioral experiments.
|
12
|
What tells you how much of the food you should eat to get the nutrients listed on the label?
|
[
"A. serving size",
"B. scoop size",
"C. longer size",
"D. regular size"
] |
A. serving size
|
Document 1 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 2 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 3 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 4 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 5 ::: The SAT Subject Test in Physics had 75 questions and consisted of two parts: Part A and Part B. Part A: First 12 or 13 questions 4 groups of two to four questions each The questions within any one group all relate to a single situation. Five possible answer choices are given before the question. An answer choice can be used once, more than once, or not at all in each group.Part B: Last 62 or 63 questions Each question has five possible answer choice with one correct answer. Some questions may be in groups of two or three.
Document 6 ::: Multiple Choice and Free Response Sections of the AP® Physics 1 exam are also assessed on scientific practices. Below are tables representing the practices assessed and their weighting for both parts of the exam
Document 7 ::: The 2014 AP Chemistry exam was the first administration of a redesigned test as a result of a redesigning of the AP Chemistry course. The exam format is now different from the previous years, with 60 multiple choice questions (now with only four answer choices per question), 3 long free response questions, and 4 short free response questions. The new exam has a focus on longer, more in depth, lab-based questions. The penalty for incorrect answers on the multiple choice section was also removed. More detailed information can be found at the related link.
Document 8 ::: This section tests the ability to apply scientific knowledge typically covered in school Science and Mathematics by the age of 16 (for example, GCSE in the UK and IGCSE internationally). It is made up of 27 questions, with 30 minutes to complete. The scope of scientific knowledge include that of Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Biology.
Document 9 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 10 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
|
13
|
What are used to write nuclear equations for radioactive decay?
|
[
"A. critical symbols",
"B. radioactive symbols",
"C. nuclear symbols",
"D. trigonometric symbols"
] |
C. nuclear symbols
|
Document 1 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 2 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 3 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 4 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 5 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 6 ::: The practice also continues with tritium compounds. When the name of the solvent is given, a lowercase d is sometimes used. For example, d6-benzene and C6D6 can be used instead of C6.The symbols for isotopes of elements other than hydrogen and radon are no longer in use within the scientific community. Many of these symbols were designated during the early years of radiochemistry, and several isotopes (namely those in the decay chains of actinium, radium, and thorium) bear placeholder names using the early naming system devised by Ernest Rutherford.
Document 7 ::: Multiple Choice and Free Response Sections of the AP® Physics 1 exam are also assessed on scientific practices. Below are tables representing the practices assessed and their weighting for both parts of the exam
Document 8 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 9 ::: These are conceptual ranking-task questions that help the student before embarking on numerical calculations. The textbook covers most of the basic topics in physics: Mechanics Waves Thermodynamics Electromagnetism Optics Special RelativityThe extended edition also contains introductions to topics such as quantum mechanics, atomic theory, solid-state physics, nuclear physics and cosmology. A solutions manual and a study guide are also available.
Document 10 ::: Although isotopes are more relevant to nuclear chemistry or stable isotope chemistry than to conventional chemistry, different isotopes may be indicated with a prefixed superscript in a chemical formula. For example, the phosphate ion containing radioactive phosphorus-32 is 3−. Also a study involving stable isotope ratios might include the molecule 18O16O. A left-hand subscript is sometimes used redundantly to indicate the atomic number. For example, 8O2 for dioxygen, and 168O2 for the most abundant isotopic species of dioxygen. This is convenient when writing equations for nuclear reactions, in order to show the balance of charge more clearly.
|
14
|
What is controlled by regulatory proteins that bind to regulatory elements on dna?
|
[
"A. substance transcription",
"B. amino acids",
"C. mRNA",
"D. gene transcription"
] |
D. gene transcription
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 3 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 4 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 5 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 6 ::: Core subjects are similar to biochemistry courses and typically include gene expression, research methods, proteins, cancer research, immunology, biotechnology and many more. In some universities molecular medicine is combined with another discipline such as chemistry, functioning as an additional study to enrich the undergraduate program.
Document 7 ::: Replication of DNA and transcription from DNA to mRNA occurs in the nucleus while translation from RNA to proteins occurs in the ribosome. The genetic code is made of four base pairs: adenine, cytosine, uracil, and guanine and is redundant meaning multiple combinations of these base pairs (which are read in triplicate) produce the same amino acid. Proteomics and genomics are fields in biology that come out of the study of molecular genetics and the Central Dogma.
Document 8 ::: Structural gene expression is regulated by numerous factors including epigenetics (e.g. methylation), RNAi, and more. Regulatory and structural genes can be epigenetically regulated identically, so not all regulation is coded for by “regulatory genes”.There are also examples of proteins that do not decidedly fit either category, such as chaperone proteins. These proteins aid in the folding of other proteins, a seemingly regulatory role.
Document 9 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 10 ::: Next, each direct input is assigned to an operator site and different transcription factors can be allowed, or not, to compete for the same operator site, while indirect inputs are given a target. Finally, a function is assigned to each gene, defining the gene's response to a combination of transcription factors (promoter state). The transfer functions (that is, how genes respond to a combination of inputs) can be assigned to each combination of promoter states as desired. In other recent work, multiscale models of gene regulatory networks have been developed that focus on synthetic biology applications. Simulations have been used that model all biomolecular interactions in transcription, translation, regulation, and induction of gene regulatory networks, guiding the design of synthetic systems.
|
15
|
Boron only occurs naturally in compounds with what element?
|
[
"A. helium",
"B. nitrogen",
"C. carbon",
"D. oxygen"
] |
D. oxygen
|
Document 1 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 2 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 3 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 4 ::: The second part contains 8 free response questions. Complete written explanations and calculations are required for full credit on a question, and partial credit is awarded. More thorough knowledge of basic theories is required, and often there are questions on less-emphasized portions of normal high school chemistry curricula, such as organic chemistry and coordination chemistry. One hour and 45 minutes (105 minutes) are allowed for this section.
Document 5 ::: Boron Boron is the only element with a partially disordered structure in its most thermodynamically stable crystalline form. Boron, antimony These elements are record holders within the field of superacid chemistry. For seven decades, fluorosulfonic acid HSO3F and trifluoromethanesulfonic acid CF3SO3H were the strongest known acids that could be isolated as single compounds.
Document 6 ::: Mendeleev commented that, "Boron appears in a free state in several forms which are intermediate between the metals and the nonmmetals. "The structural chemistry of boron is dominated by its small atomic size, and relatively high ionization energy. With only three valence electrons per boron atom, simple covalent bonding cannot fulfil the octet rule.
Document 7 ::: The chemical element nitrogen is one of the most abundant elements in the universe and can form many compounds. It can take several oxidation states; but the most oxidation states are -3 and +3. Nitrogen can form nitride and nitrate ions. It also forms a part of nitric acid and nitrate salts. Nitrogen compounds also have an important role in organic chemistry, as nitrogen is part of proteins, amino acids and adenosine triphosphate.
Document 8 ::: It is believed to be the first compound to have formed in the universe, and is of fundamental importance in understanding the chemistry of the early universe. This is because hydrogen and helium were almost the only types of atoms formed in Big Bang nucleosynthesis. Stars formed from the primordial material should contain HeH+, which could influence their formation and subsequent evolution.
Document 9 ::: Typically, the topics are, in order, descriptive chemistry/laboratory techniques, stoichiometry, gases/liquids/solids, thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibrium, electrochemistry, electronic structure/periodic trends, bonding theories, and organic chemistry. There is no penalty for guessing; a student's score is equal to the number of questions answered correctly. One and a half hours (90 minutes) are allotted for this first part.
Document 10 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
|
16
|
What organ systems link exchange surfaces with cells throughout the body?
|
[
"A. pulmonary",
"B. nervous",
"C. circulatory",
"D. vascular"
] |
C. circulatory
|
Document 1 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 2 ::: Humans have the overall body plan of a mammal. Humans have a head, neck, trunk (which includes the thorax and abdomen), two arms and hands, and two legs and feet. Generally, students of certain biological sciences, paramedics, prosthetists and orthotists, physiotherapists, occupational therapists, nurses, podiatrists, and medical students learn gross anatomy and microscopic anatomy from anatomical models, skeletons, textbooks, diagrams, photographs, lectures and tutorials and in addition, medical students generally also learn gross anatomy through practical experience of dissection and inspection of cadavers. The study of microscopic anatomy (or histology) can be aided by practical experience examining histological preparations (or slides) under a microscope.Human anatomy, physiology and biochemistry are complementary basic medical sciences, which are generally taught to medical students in their first year at medical school.
Document 3 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 4 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 5 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 6 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 7 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 8 ::: 3D printing gives students a new perspective with topographic maps. Science students can study cross-sections of internal organs of the human body and other biological specimens. And chemistry students can explore 3D models of molecules and the relationship within chemical compounds.
Document 9 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 10 ::: One of the challenges of 3D printing organs is to recreate the vasculature required to keep the organs alive. Designing a correct vasculature is necessary for the transport of nutrients, oxygen, and waste. Blood vessels, especially capillaries, are difficult due to the small diameter. Progress has been made in this area at Rice University, where researchers designed a 3D printer to make vessels in biocompatible hydrogels and designed a model of lungs that can oxygenate blood.
|
17
|
What occurs when the immune system attacks a harmless substance that enters the body from the outside?
|
[
"A. nausea",
"B. panic attack",
"C. allergy",
"D. plague"
] |
C. allergy
|
Document 1 ::: ": 46 She also contended that the two studies that had failed to replicate the Uhlmann paper's results were flawed for two reasons: because they looked at cells of children with autism rather than in their GI tract, and because they did not test children with autism with gastrointestinal dysfunction. : 629A Immunologist Vera Byers testified that Michelle Cedillo had a dysregulated immune system, which allowed the measles virus to persist in her system, and that her malfunctioning immune system was in part a result of the virus itself. : 32 She also stated that this dysregulation was caused by "a combination of genetics and the measles virus vaccination and the thimerosal-containing vaccines that she had received.
Document 2 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 3 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 4 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 5 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 6 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 7 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 8 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 9 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 10 ::: At the beginning of the contest, teams have a choice between three problems. Problem A involves a system that requires the use of continuous mathematics, and thus often involves concepts from geometry, physics, or engineering. Problem B involves a system that requires the use of discrete mathematics. In 2016, a "data insights" problem was added, where teams are given access to database files and tasked with using them to answer a question.
|
18
|
Fertilization is the union of a sperm and egg, resulting in the formation of what?
|
[
"A. a cytoplasm",
"B. a nuclei",
"C. a bacteriophage",
"D. a zygote"
] |
D. a zygote
|
Document 1 ::: In biology, polyspermy describes the fertilization of an egg by more than one sperm. Diploid organisms normally contain two copies of each chromosome, one from each parent. The cell resulting from polyspermy, on the other hand, contains three or more copies of each chromosome—one from the egg and one each from multiple sperm.
Document 2 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 3 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 4 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 5 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 6 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 7 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 8 ::: "Is evolution compatible with Christianity or other religious systems?" "Are there laws of biology like the laws of physics? "Ideas drawn from philosophical ontology and logic are being used by biologists in the domain of bioinformatics.
Document 9 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 10 ::: Experiment: Rosalind Franklin used pure DNA to perform X-ray diffraction to produce photo 51. The results showed an X-shape. Analysis: When Watson saw the detailed diffraction pattern, he immediately recognized it as a helix. He and Crick then produced their model, using this information along with the previously known information about DNA's composition, especially Chargaff's rules of base pairing.The discovery became the starting point for many further studies involving the genetic material, such as the field of molecular genetics, and it was awarded the Nobel Prize in 1962. Each step of the example is examined in more detail later in the article.
|
19
|
The plants alternation between haploid and diploud generations allow it to do what?
|
[
"A. reproduce asexually and sexually",
"B. reproduce asexually and biologically",
"C. reproduce asexually and simultaneously",
"D. reproduce sexually and autonomously"
] |
A. reproduce asexually and sexually
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 3 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 4 ::: Many eukaryotes (including animals and plants) exhibit asexual reproduction, which may be facultative or obligate in the life cycle, with sexual reproduction occurring more or less frequently.Individual organisms participating in a biological life cycle ordinarily age and die, while cells from these organisms that connect successive life cycle generations (germ line cells and their descendants) are potentially immortal. The basis for this difference is a fundamental problem in biology. The Russian biologist and historian Zhores A. Medvedev considered that the accuracy of genome replicative and other synthetic systems alone cannot explain the immortality of germ lines.
Document 5 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 6 ::: In the anther, after a microspore undergoes microsporogenesis, it can deviate towards embryogenesis and become star-like microspores. The microspore can then go one of four ways: Become an embryogenic microspore, undergo callogenesis to organogenesis (haploid/double haploid plant), become a pollen-like structure or die.Microspore embryogenesis is used in biotechnology to produce double haploid plants, which are immediately fixed as homozygous for each locus in only one generation. The haploid microspore is stressed to trigger the embryogenesis pathway and the resulting haploid embryo either doubles its genome spontaneously or with the help of chromosome doubling agents. Without this double haploid technology, conventional breeding methods would take several generations of selection to produce a homozygous line.
Document 7 ::: In biology, the question of the individual is related to the definition of an organism, which is an important question in biology and philosophy of biology, despite there having been little work devoted explicitly to this question. An individual organism is not the only kind of individual that is considered as a "unit of selection". Genes, genomes, or groups may function as individual units.Asexual reproduction occurs in some colonial organisms so that the individuals are genetically identical. Such a colony is called a genet, and an individual in such a population is referred to as a ramet.
Document 8 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 9 ::: This scheme of diploid somatic cells and haploid gametes is widely used in the animal kingdom and is the simplest to illustrate in diagrams of genetics concepts. But this definition also allows for haploid gametes with more than one set of chromosomes. As given above, gametes are by definition haploid, regardless of the actual number of sets of chromosomes they contain.
Document 10 ::: A simple textbook definition, following Mayr's concept, works well for most multi-celled organisms, but breaks down in several situations: When organisms reproduce asexually, as in single-celled organisms such as bacteria and other prokaryotes, and parthenogenetic or apomictic multi-celled organisms. DNA barcoding and phylogenetics are commonly used in these cases. The term quasispecies is sometimes used for rapidly mutating entities like viruses. When scientists do not know whether two morphologically similar groups of organisms are capable of interbreeding; this is the case with all extinct life-forms in palaeontology, as breeding experiments are not possible.
|
20
|
Most of the chemical reactions in the body are facilitated by what?
|
[
"A. proteins",
"B. vitamins",
"C. enzymes",
"D. carbohydrates"
] |
C. enzymes
|
Document 1 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 2 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 3 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 4 ::: The second part contains 8 free response questions. Complete written explanations and calculations are required for full credit on a question, and partial credit is awarded. More thorough knowledge of basic theories is required, and often there are questions on less-emphasized portions of normal high school chemistry curricula, such as organic chemistry and coordination chemistry. One hour and 45 minutes (105 minutes) are allowed for this section.
Document 5 ::: Typically, the topics are, in order, descriptive chemistry/laboratory techniques, stoichiometry, gases/liquids/solids, thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibrium, electrochemistry, electronic structure/periodic trends, bonding theories, and organic chemistry. There is no penalty for guessing; a student's score is equal to the number of questions answered correctly. One and a half hours (90 minutes) are allotted for this first part.
Document 6 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 7 ::: Biochemistry is the science of the chemical processes which takes place within living organisms. Living organisms need essential elements to survive, among which are carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, calcium, and phosphorus. These elements make up the four macromolecules that living organisms need to survive: carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids. Carbohydrates, made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, are energy-storing molecules.
Document 8 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 9 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 10 ::: The 2014 AP Chemistry exam was the first administration of a redesigned test as a result of a redesigning of the AP Chemistry course. The exam format is now different from the previous years, with 60 multiple choice questions (now with only four answer choices per question), 3 long free response questions, and 4 short free response questions. The new exam has a focus on longer, more in depth, lab-based questions. The penalty for incorrect answers on the multiple choice section was also removed. More detailed information can be found at the related link.
|
21
|
What is the termination of a pregnancy in progress called?
|
[
"A. delivery",
"B. abortion",
"C. contraception",
"D. miscarriage"
] |
B. abortion
|
Document 1 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 2 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 3 ::: "The examiner and Calandra, who was called to advise on the case, faced a moral dilemma. According to the format of the exam, a correct answer deserved a full credit. But issuing a full credit would have violated academic standards by rewarding a student who had not demonstrated competence in the academic field that had been tested (physics).
Document 4 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 5 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 6 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 7 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 8 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 9 ::: This section tests the ability to apply scientific knowledge typically covered in school Science and Mathematics by the age of 16 (for example, GCSE in the UK and IGCSE internationally). It is made up of 27 questions, with 30 minutes to complete. The scope of scientific knowledge include that of Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Biology.
Document 10 ::: The SAT Subject Test in Physics had 75 questions and consisted of two parts: Part A and Part B. Part A: First 12 or 13 questions 4 groups of two to four questions each The questions within any one group all relate to a single situation. Five possible answer choices are given before the question. An answer choice can be used once, more than once, or not at all in each group.Part B: Last 62 or 63 questions Each question has five possible answer choice with one correct answer. Some questions may be in groups of two or three.
|
22
|
Cutting down on the use of chemical fertilizers and preserving wetlands are ways to prevent what "unlivable" regions in bodies of water?
|
[
"A. inhabitable zones",
"B. dead zones",
"C. hostile zones",
"D. fresh zones"
] |
B. dead zones
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: Contaminant remediation in aquifers. The decision problem is where to locate wells, and choose a pumping rate, to minimize the cost to prevent spread of a contaminant. The constraints are associated with the hydrogeological flows.Water allocation to improve wetlands. This optimization model recommends water allocation and invasive vegetation control to improve wetland habitat of priority bird species.
Document 3 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 4 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 5 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 6 ::: Each participant was identified as having well or poorly defined prior attitudes toward being an environmentalist or conservationist. Participants then completed one of two versions of a questionnaire designed to bring to mind either past pro-ecology behaviors or past anti-ecology behaviors. For example, questions such as "Have you ever recycled?"
Document 7 ::: For this track, students take classes introducing them to ways to conserve natural resources. This can include classes in water chemistry, sanitation, combustion, air pollution and radioactive waste management.
Document 8 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 9 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 10 ::: Development of dose-response function with respect to soils, soil organisms, aquatic and amphibious organisms, crop plants, and forest plants;8. Establishing and carrying out system studies with respect to plant physiology, aquatic ecosystems, soil chemistry systems, soil microbial system, and forest ecosystems; and9. Economic assessments of (a) the environmental impacts caused by acidic precipitation on crops, forests, fisheries, recreational and aesthetic resources, and structures, and (b) alternative technologies to remedy or otherwise ameliorate the harmful effects which may result from acid precipitation.
|
23
|
Which muscles allow your fingers to also make precise movements for actions?
|
[
"A. fine movement muscles",
"B. paired muscles",
"C. intrinsic muscles",
"D. motoric muscles"
] |
C. intrinsic muscles
|
Document 1 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 2 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 3 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 4 ::: Hestenes (1998) found that while "nearly 80% of the could state Newton's Third Law at the beginning of the course, FCI data showed that less than 15% of them fully understood it at the end". These results have been replicated in a number of studies involving students at a range of institutions (see sources section below), and have led to greater recognition in the physics education research community of the importance of students' "active engagement" with the materials to be mastered. The 1995 version has 30 five-way multiple choice questions.Example question (question 4): A large truck collides head-on with a small compact car.
Document 5 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 6 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 7 ::: Questions are answered with on-screen interfaces (staff, piano, guitar, bass, violin, cello, banjo and other stringed instruments), a functional keyboard with scale degrees and solfege syllables, multiple-choice buttons, a MIDI instrument, or through a microphone (voice, clapping or acoustic instruments). The user can choose between several note-naming systems to complete the exercises: Letters (A, B, C, etc.), Scale degrees, Fixed-Do Solfege, or Relative-Do Solfege, which makes it compatible with the Kodály method. The results of each lesson are recorded and analyzed in a statistics window.
Document 8 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 9 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 10 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
|
24
|
Testing what usually requires making observations or performing experiments?
|
[
"A. homeostasis",
"B. hypothesis",
"C. variables",
"D. conclusion"
] |
B. hypothesis
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 3 ::: This section tests the ability to apply scientific knowledge typically covered in school Science and Mathematics by the age of 16 (for example, GCSE in the UK and IGCSE internationally). It is made up of 27 questions, with 30 minutes to complete. The scope of scientific knowledge include that of Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Biology.
Document 4 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 5 ::: Hestenes (1998) found that while "nearly 80% of the could state Newton's Third Law at the beginning of the course, FCI data showed that less than 15% of them fully understood it at the end". These results have been replicated in a number of studies involving students at a range of institutions (see sources section below), and have led to greater recognition in the physics education research community of the importance of students' "active engagement" with the materials to be mastered. The 1995 version has 30 five-way multiple choice questions.Example question (question 4): A large truck collides head-on with a small compact car.
Document 6 ::: b. What did the scientist criticize a proof of? c. What did the scientist criticize the proof of? d. Why did the scientist criticize Max's proof of the theorem?
Document 7 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 8 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 9 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 10 ::: After the on-line questions, students will take a test about what they have learned while solving the on-line questions. First grade students in high school take this test. The questions are based on basic chemistry. The test can determine how much the students understand basic chemistry.
|
25
|
This sharing of electrons produces what is known as a covalent bond. covalent bonds are ~20 to 50 times stronger than what?
|
[
"A. van der waals interactions",
"B. gravitational pull",
"C. Mendelian systems",
"D. Newton's third law"
] |
A. van der waals interactions
|
Document 1 ::: In organic chemistry, covalent bonding is much more common than ionic bonding. Covalent bonding also includes many kinds of interactions, including σ-bonding, π-bonding, metal-to-metal bonding, agostic interactions, bent bonds, three-center two-electron bonds and three-center four-electron bonds. The term covalent bond dates from 1939.
Document 2 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 3 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 4 ::: Hestenes (1998) found that while "nearly 80% of the could state Newton's Third Law at the beginning of the course, FCI data showed that less than 15% of them fully understood it at the end". These results have been replicated in a number of studies involving students at a range of institutions (see sources section below), and have led to greater recognition in the physics education research community of the importance of students' "active engagement" with the materials to be mastered. The 1995 version has 30 five-way multiple choice questions.Example question (question 4): A large truck collides head-on with a small compact car.
Document 5 ::: Several criteria influence the strength of the bonding: the nature of the cation, solvation effects, the nature of the π system, and the geometry of the interaction.
Document 6 ::: Carbon atoms bond readily to other carbon atoms; this allows the building of arbitrarily long macromolecules and polymers in a process known as catenation. "What we normally think of as 'life' is based on chains of carbon atoms, with a few other atoms, such as nitrogen or phosphorus", per Stephen Hawking in a 2008 lecture, "carbon has the richest chemistry.
Document 7 ::: The energy of a hydrogen bond depends on the geometry, the environment, and the nature of the specific donor and acceptor atoms and can vary between 1 and 40 kcal/mol. This makes them somewhat stronger than a van der Waals interaction, and weaker than fully covalent or ionic bonds. This type of bond can occur in inorganic molecules such as water and in organic molecules like DNA and proteins.
Document 8 ::: The magnetic moment of the nucleus is negligible compared with that of the electrons. The magnetic moments of the electrons that occupy the same orbital (so called, paired electrons) cancel each other out.The chemical bond between atoms occurs as a result of electromagnetic interactions, as described by the laws of quantum mechanics. The strongest bonds are formed by the sharing or transfer of electrons between atoms, allowing the formation of molecules.
Document 9 ::: You still do not appear to understand the impact of my short piece in Scientific American. Much like you can't make a boy and a girl fall in love with each other simply by pushing them together, you cannot make precise chemistry occur as desired between two molecular objects with simple mechanical motion along a few degrees of freedom in the assembler-fixed frame of reference. Chemistry, like love, is more subtle than that.
Document 10 ::: Typically, the topics are, in order, descriptive chemistry/laboratory techniques, stoichiometry, gases/liquids/solids, thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibrium, electrochemistry, electronic structure/periodic trends, bonding theories, and organic chemistry. There is no penalty for guessing; a student's score is equal to the number of questions answered correctly. One and a half hours (90 minutes) are allotted for this first part.
|
26
|
Water molecules move about continuously due to what type of energy?
|
[
"A. seismic",
"B. optical",
"C. potential",
"D. kinetic"
] |
D. kinetic
|
Document 1 ::: These are conceptual ranking-task questions that help the student before embarking on numerical calculations. The textbook covers most of the basic topics in physics: Mechanics Waves Thermodynamics Electromagnetism Optics Special RelativityThe extended edition also contains introductions to topics such as quantum mechanics, atomic theory, solid-state physics, nuclear physics and cosmology. A solutions manual and a study guide are also available.
Document 2 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 3 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 4 ::: Conceptual problems are often formulated as multiple-choice questions, making them easy to use during in-class discussions, particularly when utilizing active learning, peer instruction, and audience response. An example of a conceptual question in undergraduate thermodynamics is provided below: During adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, its temperatureincreases decreases stays the same Impossible to tell/need more information The use of conceptual questions in physics was popularized by Eric Mazur, particularly in the form of multiple-choice tests that he called ConcepTests.
Document 5 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 6 ::: Physics is taught from Newtonian mechanics, Fluid Dynamics, Waves, Optics, Electricity, Magnetism, to modern physics, usually ending with STR, Relativistic Dynamics, Quantum Theory, Quantum Mechanics, Molecular Physics, Physical Chemistry, Atomic Physics, Solid State Physics, Quantum Optics, Nuclear Physics, Nuclear Engineering, Elementary Particle Physics, and introduction to Astrophysics and Cosmology, General Relativity, and some basic introduction to String Theory, Cosmology, and M-Theory.
Document 7 ::: Hestenes (1998) found that while "nearly 80% of the could state Newton's Third Law at the beginning of the course, FCI data showed that less than 15% of them fully understood it at the end". These results have been replicated in a number of studies involving students at a range of institutions (see sources section below), and have led to greater recognition in the physics education research community of the importance of students' "active engagement" with the materials to be mastered. The 1995 version has 30 five-way multiple choice questions.Example question (question 4): A large truck collides head-on with a small compact car.
Document 8 ::: The SAT Subject Test in Physics had 75 questions and consisted of two parts: Part A and Part B. Part A: First 12 or 13 questions 4 groups of two to four questions each The questions within any one group all relate to a single situation. Five possible answer choices are given before the question. An answer choice can be used once, more than once, or not at all in each group.Part B: Last 62 or 63 questions Each question has five possible answer choice with one correct answer. Some questions may be in groups of two or three.
Document 9 ::: In coarse-grain models, each site can represent several water molecules. Many-body models. Water models built using training-set configurations solved quantum mechanically, which then use machine learning protocols to extract potential-energy surfaces. These potential-energy surfaces are fed into MD simulations for an unprecedented degree of accuracy in computing physical properties of condensed phase systems.Another classification of many body models is on the basis of the expansion of the underlying electrostatics, e.g., the SCME (Single Center Multipole Expansion) model
Document 10 ::: "In Physics II.3 and Metaphysics V.2, Aristotle holds that there are four kinds of answers to "why" questions: Matter The material cause of a change or movement. This is the aspect of the change or movement that is determined by the material that composes the moving or changing things. For a table, this might be wood; for a statue, it might be bronze or marble.
|
27
|
A small scale version of what type of map displays individual rock units?
|
[
"A. polar map",
"B. geologic map",
"C. seismic map",
"D. geographic map"
] |
B. geologic map
|
Document 1 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 2 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 3 ::: 1C – Proved contingent resources 1oo2 – One out of two voting (instrumentation) 1P – Proven reserves 2C – Proved and probable contingent resources 2D – two-dimensional (geophysics) 2oo2 – Two out of two voting (instrumentation) 2oo3 – Two out of three voting (instrumentation) 2P – proved and probable reserves 3C – three components seismic acquisition (x, y, and z) 3C – Proved, probable and possible contingent resources 3D – three-dimensional (geophysics) 3P – proved, probable and possible reserves 4D – multiple 3Ds acquired over time (the 4th D) over the same area with the same parameters (geophysics) 8rd – eight round (describes the number of revolutions per inch of pipe thread)
Document 4 ::: In 2013, pgEd created a mobile educational quiz called Map-Ed. Map-Ed invites players to work their way through five questions that address key concepts in genetics and then pin themselves on a world map. Within weeks of its launch, Map-Ed gained over 1,000 pins around the world, spanning across all 7 continents. Translations and new maps linked to questions on topics broadly related to genetics are in development.
Document 5 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 6 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 7 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 8 ::: Some universities and secondary educators are integrating digital geologic mapping into class work. For example, The GeoPad project describes the combination of technology, teaching field geology, and geologic mapping in programs such as Bowling Green State University’s geology field camp. At Urbino University (Italy) it:Università di Urbino, Field Digital Mapping Techniques are integrated in Earth and Environmental Sciences courses since 2006 . The MapTeach program is designed to provide hands-on digital mapping for middle and high school students.
Document 9 ::: At the beginning of the contest, teams have a choice between three problems. Problem A involves a system that requires the use of continuous mathematics, and thus often involves concepts from geometry, physics, or engineering. Problem B involves a system that requires the use of discrete mathematics. In 2016, a "data insights" problem was added, where teams are given access to database files and tasked with using them to answer a question.
Document 10 ::: P1 Astronomy P2 Geodesy P3 Geophysics P4 Meteorology P5 Geology P6 Mineralogy P7 Oceanography P9 Physiography
|
28
|
What is defined as a change in the inherited traits of organisms over time?
|
[
"A. variation",
"B. generation",
"C. evolution",
"D. divergence"
] |
C. evolution
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: : 110 For example, Jean-Baptiste Lamarck was a French naturalist who said the changes an organism makes as it adapts to its environment can be passed down to subsequent generations through gene expression (which genes get turned off). This has been taken up by the new field of epigenetics. : 160–167: 111 The mutation theory of evolution was proposed by a Dutch botanist, Hugo de Vries, one of the first geneticists.
Document 3 ::: For example, a multiple-choice exam designed to assess knowledge of key concepts in natural selection does not meet a number of standards of quality control. One problem with the exam is that the two members of each of several pairs of parallel items, with each pair designed to measure exactly one key concept in natural selection, sometimes have very different levels of difficulty. Another problem is that the multiple-choice exam overestimates knowledge of natural selection as reflected in student performance on a diagnostic essay exam and a diagnostic oral exam, two instruments with reasonably good construct validity. Although scoring concept inventories in the form of essay or oral exams is labor-intensive, costly, and difficult to implement with large numbers of students, such exams can offer a more realistic appraisal of the actual levels of students' conceptual mastery as well as their misconceptions. Recently, however, computer technology has been developed that can score essay responses on concept inventories in biology and other domains, promising to facilitate the scoring of concept inventories organized as (transcribed) oral exams as well as essays.
Document 4 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 5 ::: The test specifications for the Biology section changed in 2014. These changes reflected a shift on the way that Biology is taught in survey courses. This means that the questions now focus on "complex interactions within biological systems, rather than viewing biology in a reductionist manner". There are also changes to the Quantitative Reasoning section.
Document 6 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 7 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 8 ::: "Is evolution compatible with Christianity or other religious systems?" "Are there laws of biology like the laws of physics? "Ideas drawn from philosophical ontology and logic are being used by biologists in the domain of bioinformatics.
Document 9 ::: A major source of confusion and ambiguity in any creation–evolution debate can arise from the definition of evolution itself. In the context of biology, evolution is genetic changes in populations of organisms over successive generations. The word also has a number of different meanings in different fields, from evolutionary computation to molecular evolution to sociocultural evolution to stellar and galactic evolution. Evolution in colloquial contexts can refer to any sort of "progressive" development or gradual improvement, and a process that results in greater quality or complexity.
Document 10 ::: Subjects studied within macroevolution include: Adaptive radiations such as the Cambrian Explosion. Changes in biodiversity through time. Evo-devo (the connection between evolution and developmental biology) Genome evolution, like horizontal gene transfer, genome fusions in endosymbioses, and adaptive changes in genome size. Mass extinctions.
|
29
|
What hormone, which is associated with luteinizing hormone and male sexuality, helps bring about physical changes in puberty?
|
[
"A. testosterone",
"B. epinephrine",
"C. steroids",
"D. estrogen"
] |
A. testosterone
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: Precocious puberty can be classified into central (gonadotropin-dependent) precocious puberty or peripheral (gonadotropin-independent) puberty. Peripheral precocious puberty has been linked to exposure to exogenous estrogenic compounds. Age of onset of puberty is influenced by many factors such as genetics, nutritional status, ethnicity and environmental factors including socio-economic conditions and geographical location.
Document 3 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 4 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 5 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 6 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 7 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 8 ::: Modern research attempts to distinguish between these causes and to analyze any ethical concerns raised. Since behavior is a result of interactions between nature and nurture, researchers are interested in investigating how biology and environment interact to produce such differences, although this is often not possible. : 36 A number of factors combine to influence the development of sex differences, including genetics and epigenetics; differences in brain structure and function; hormones, and socialization.The formation of gender is controversial in many scientific fields, including psychology. Specifically, researchers and theorists take different perspectives on how much of gender is due to biological, neurochemical, and evolutionary factors (nature), or is the result of culture and socialization (nurture). This is known as the nature versus nurture debate.
Document 9 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 10 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
|
30
|
Where do angiosperms produce seeds in flowers?
|
[
"A. cones",
"B. germs",
"C. testes",
"D. ovaries"
] |
D. ovaries
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: Following the evolution of the seed habit, seed plants diversified, giving rise to a number of now-extinct groups, including seed ferns, as well as the modern gymnosperms and angiosperms. Gymnosperms produce "naked seeds" not fully enclosed in an ovary; modern representatives include conifers, cycads, Ginkgo, and Gnetales. Angiosperms produce seeds enclosed in a structure such as a carpel or an ovary. Ongoing research on the molecular phylogenetics of living plants appears to show that the angiosperms are a sister clade to the gymnosperms.
Document 3 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 4 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 5 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 6 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 7 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 8 ::: Pollenizers can also be supplied by putting drum bouquets of crab apples or a compatible apple variety in the orchard blocks. The field of pollination management cannot be placed wholly within any other field, because it bridges several fields. It draws from horticulture, apiculture, zoology (especially entomology), ecology, and botany.
Document 9 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 10 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
|
31
|
In order to create food, what do photosynthetic protists use?
|
[
"A. light energy",
"B. thermal energy",
"C. hydrocarbons",
"D. decayed matter"
] |
A. light energy
|
Document 1 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 2 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 3 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 4 ::: Conceptual problems are often formulated as multiple-choice questions, making them easy to use during in-class discussions, particularly when utilizing active learning, peer instruction, and audience response. An example of a conceptual question in undergraduate thermodynamics is provided below: During adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, its temperatureincreases decreases stays the same Impossible to tell/need more information The use of conceptual questions in physics was popularized by Eric Mazur, particularly in the form of multiple-choice tests that he called ConcepTests.
Document 5 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 6 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 7 ::: The College Board suggested a year-long course in biology at the college preparatory level, as well as a one-year course in algebra, and lab experience as preparation for the test. The test required understanding of biological data and concepts, science-related terms, and the ability to effectively synthesize and interpret data from charts, maps, and other visual media. However, most questions from this test were derived from, or are similar to, the pre-2012 AP Biology multiple choice questions. By taking an AP class or a class with similar rigor, one's chances at doing well on this test should have improved.
Document 8 ::: The second part contains 8 free response questions. Complete written explanations and calculations are required for full credit on a question, and partial credit is awarded. More thorough knowledge of basic theories is required, and often there are questions on less-emphasized portions of normal high school chemistry curricula, such as organic chemistry and coordination chemistry. One hour and 45 minutes (105 minutes) are allowed for this section.
Document 9 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 10 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
|
32
|
What type of vertebrates are birds?
|
[
"A. invertebrates",
"B. exothermic",
"C. endothermic tetrapod",
"D. epidermal tetrapod"
] |
C. endothermic tetrapod
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 3 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 4 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 5 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 6 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 7 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 8 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 9 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 10 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
|
33
|
What type of ions do ionic compounds contain?
|
[
"A. positive and charged",
"B. regular and irregular",
"C. positive and negative",
"D. negative and neutal"
] |
C. positive and negative
|
Document 1 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 2 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 3 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 4 ::: The 2014 AP Chemistry exam was the first administration of a redesigned test as a result of a redesigning of the AP Chemistry course. The exam format is now different from the previous years, with 60 multiple choice questions (now with only four answer choices per question), 3 long free response questions, and 4 short free response questions. The new exam has a focus on longer, more in depth, lab-based questions. The penalty for incorrect answers on the multiple choice section was also removed. More detailed information can be found at the related link.
Document 5 ::: Typically, the topics are, in order, descriptive chemistry/laboratory techniques, stoichiometry, gases/liquids/solids, thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibrium, electrochemistry, electronic structure/periodic trends, bonding theories, and organic chemistry. There is no penalty for guessing; a student's score is equal to the number of questions answered correctly. One and a half hours (90 minutes) are allotted for this first part.
Document 6 ::: The second part contains 8 free response questions. Complete written explanations and calculations are required for full credit on a question, and partial credit is awarded. More thorough knowledge of basic theories is required, and often there are questions on less-emphasized portions of normal high school chemistry curricula, such as organic chemistry and coordination chemistry. One hour and 45 minutes (105 minutes) are allowed for this section.
Document 7 ::: The annual AP Chemistry examination, which is typically administered in May, is divided into two major sections (multiple-choice questions and free response essays).
Document 8 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 9 ::: This test consisted of 85 questions. The first 23 questions numbered 1-23 were 'classification questions'. The next 15 questions, numbered 101-115, were called 'relationship analysis questions'. The SAT Subject Test in Chemistry was currently the only SAT that incorporates the relationship analysis questions.
Document 10 ::: In ionic compounds, it can take on either a positive charge, becoming a cation composed of a bare proton, or a negative charge, becoming an anion known as a hydride. Hydrogen can form compounds with most elements and is present in water and most organic compounds. It plays a particularly important role in acid-base chemistry, in which many reactions involve the exchange of protons between soluble molecules.
|
34
|
All living things need air and this to survive?
|
[
"A. water",
"B. ecosystem",
"C. stimuli",
"D. habitat"
] |
A. water
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 3 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 4 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 5 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 6 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 7 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 8 ::: The College Board suggested a year-long course in biology at the college preparatory level, as well as a one-year course in algebra, and lab experience as preparation for the test. The test required understanding of biological data and concepts, science-related terms, and the ability to effectively synthesize and interpret data from charts, maps, and other visual media. However, most questions from this test were derived from, or are similar to, the pre-2012 AP Biology multiple choice questions. By taking an AP class or a class with similar rigor, one's chances at doing well on this test should have improved.
Document 9 ::: : 715 "Gravity, geology, and the specific orbit of the moon lead to the tidal patterns of the Earth's oceans and thus to both the environment in which early life evolved and in which tsunamis bring death and destruction to countless thousands of people". : 717–718 Holmes Rolston III says nature embodies 'redemptive suffering' as exemplified by Jesus.
Document 10 ::: This section tests the ability to apply scientific knowledge typically covered in school Science and Mathematics by the age of 16 (for example, GCSE in the UK and IGCSE internationally). It is made up of 27 questions, with 30 minutes to complete. The scope of scientific knowledge include that of Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Biology.
|
35
|
The cells of all eukarya have a what?
|
[
"A. chloroplast",
"B. nucleus",
"C. necrosis",
"D. epidermis"
] |
B. nucleus
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 3 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 4 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 5 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 6 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 7 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 8 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 9 ::: This includes further education about microbial, molecular and cell biology. Classes can include cell biology, virology, microbial and plant biology
Document 10 ::: The College Board suggested a year-long course in biology at the college preparatory level, as well as a one-year course in algebra, and lab experience as preparation for the test. The test required understanding of biological data and concepts, science-related terms, and the ability to effectively synthesize and interpret data from charts, maps, and other visual media. However, most questions from this test were derived from, or are similar to, the pre-2012 AP Biology multiple choice questions. By taking an AP class or a class with similar rigor, one's chances at doing well on this test should have improved.
|
36
|
What type of plate boundaries produce huge mountain ranges in the ocean basin?
|
[
"A. tractional",
"B. coherent",
"C. parallel",
"D. divergent"
] |
D. divergent
|
Document 1 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 2 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 3 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 4 ::: This stable configuration is responsible for the geometry of plate motions at the surface due as well as mantle convection. Another name for the degree two structure, a roughly 200 kilometers (120 miles) thick layer of the lower mantle directly above the core–mantle boundary, is the D″ ("D double-prime" or "D prime prime").
Document 5 ::: P1 Astronomy P2 Geodesy P3 Geophysics P4 Meteorology P5 Geology P6 Mineralogy P7 Oceanography P9 Physiography
Document 6 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 7 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 8 ::: : 715 "Gravity, geology, and the specific orbit of the moon lead to the tidal patterns of the Earth's oceans and thus to both the environment in which early life evolved and in which tsunamis bring death and destruction to countless thousands of people". : 717–718 Holmes Rolston III says nature embodies 'redemptive suffering' as exemplified by Jesus.
Document 9 ::: At the beginning of the contest, teams have a choice between three problems. Problem A involves a system that requires the use of continuous mathematics, and thus often involves concepts from geometry, physics, or engineering. Problem B involves a system that requires the use of discrete mathematics. In 2016, a "data insights" problem was added, where teams are given access to database files and tasked with using them to answer a question.
Document 10 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
|
37
|
Interstitial carbides are produced by the reaction of most transition metals at high temperatures with what element?
|
[
"A. hydrogen",
"B. nitrogen",
"C. carbon",
"D. oxygen"
] |
C. carbon
|
Document 1 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 2 ::: Typically, the topics are, in order, descriptive chemistry/laboratory techniques, stoichiometry, gases/liquids/solids, thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibrium, electrochemistry, electronic structure/periodic trends, bonding theories, and organic chemistry. There is no penalty for guessing; a student's score is equal to the number of questions answered correctly. One and a half hours (90 minutes) are allotted for this first part.
Document 3 ::: The second part contains 8 free response questions. Complete written explanations and calculations are required for full credit on a question, and partial credit is awarded. More thorough knowledge of basic theories is required, and often there are questions on less-emphasized portions of normal high school chemistry curricula, such as organic chemistry and coordination chemistry. One hour and 45 minutes (105 minutes) are allowed for this section.
Document 4 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 5 ::: At first, Gamow believed that all the elements might be produced in the very high temperature and density early stage of the universe. Later, he revised this opinion on the strength of compelling evidence advanced by Fred Hoyle and others, that elements heavier than lithium are largely produced in thermonuclear reactions in stars and in supernovae. Gamow formulated a set of coupled differential equations describing his proposed process and assigned, as a PhD dissertation topic, his graduate student Ralph Alpher the task of solving the equations numerically.
Document 6 ::: However, most of them also contain hydrogen, and because it is the carbon-hydrogen bond that gives this class of compounds most of its particular chemical characteristics, carbon-hydrogen bonds are required in some definitions of the word "organic" in chemistry. Millions of hydrocarbons are known, and they are usually formed by complicated pathways that seldom involve elemental hydrogen. Hydrogen is highly soluble in many rare earth and transition metals and is soluble in both nanocrystalline and amorphous metals. Hydrogen solubility in metals is influenced by local distortions or impurities in the crystal lattice. These properties may be useful when hydrogen is purified by passage through hot palladium disks, but the gas's high solubility is a metallurgical problem, contributing to the embrittlement of many metals, complicating the design of pipelines and storage tanks.
Document 7 ::: During this stage, the methods of making active materials depend on the electrode and the chemistry. For the cathode, two of the most popular chemistry are transition metal oxides, i.e. Lithium nickel manganese cobalt oxides (Li-NMC) and Lithium metal phosphates, i.e. Lithium iron phosphates (LFP). For the anode, the most popular chemistry now is graphite.
Document 8 ::: This test consisted of 85 questions. The first 23 questions numbered 1-23 were 'classification questions'. The next 15 questions, numbered 101-115, were called 'relationship analysis questions'. The SAT Subject Test in Chemistry was currently the only SAT that incorporates the relationship analysis questions.
Document 9 ::: The resulting materials are referred to as "carbon alloys". Carbon can form ionic salts, including a hydrogen sulfate, perchlorate, and nitrate (C+24X−.2HX, where X = HSO4, ClO4; and C+24NO–3.3HNO3). In organic chemistry, carbon can form complex cations – termed carbocations – in which the positive charge is on the carbon atom; examples are CH+3 and CH+5, and their derivatives.Carbon is brittle, and behaves as a semiconductor in a direction perpendicular to its planes.
Document 10 ::: After the on-line questions, students will take a test about what they have learned while solving the on-line questions. First grade students in high school take this test. The questions are based on basic chemistry. The test can determine how much the students understand basic chemistry.
|
38
|
Fungus-like protist saprobes play what role in a food chain and are specialized to absorb nutrients from nonliving organic matter, such as dead organisms or their wastes?
|
[
"A. aphids",
"B. Soil",
"C. fluxes",
"D. decomposers"
] |
D. decomposers
|
Document 1 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 2 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 3 ::: The College Board suggested a year-long course in biology at the college preparatory level, as well as a one-year course in algebra, and lab experience as preparation for the test. The test required understanding of biological data and concepts, science-related terms, and the ability to effectively synthesize and interpret data from charts, maps, and other visual media. However, most questions from this test were derived from, or are similar to, the pre-2012 AP Biology multiple choice questions. By taking an AP class or a class with similar rigor, one's chances at doing well on this test should have improved.
Document 4 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 5 ::: This includes further education about microbial, molecular and cell biology. Classes can include cell biology, virology, microbial and plant biology
Document 6 ::: Fungi are the principal decomposers in ecological systems. These and other differences place fungi in a single group of related organisms, named the Eumycota (true fungi or Eumycetes), that share a common ancestor (i.e. they form a monophyletic group), an interpretation that is also strongly supported by molecular phylogenetics. This fungal group is distinct from the structurally similar myxomycetes (slime molds) and oomycetes (water molds).
Document 7 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 8 ::: Soil biology is the study of microbial and faunal activity and ecology in soil. Soil life, soil biota, soil fauna, or edaphon is a collective term that encompasses all organisms that spend a significant portion of their life cycle within a soil profile, or at the soil-litter interface. These organisms include earthworms, nematodes, protozoa, fungi, bacteria, different arthropods, as well as some reptiles (such as snakes), and species of burrowing mammals like gophers, moles and prairie dogs.
Document 9 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 10 ::: Soil biology plays a vital role in determining many soil characteristics. The decomposition of organic matter by soil organisms has an immense influence on soil fertility, plant growth, soil structure, and carbon storage. As a relatively new science, much remains unknown about soil biology and its effect on soil ecosystems.
|
39
|
What are the sites of protein synthesis or assembly?
|
[
"A. chloroplasts",
"B. plasma",
"C. ribosomes",
"D. chromosomes"
] |
C. ribosomes
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 3 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 4 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 5 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 6 ::: Replication of DNA and transcription from DNA to mRNA occurs in the nucleus while translation from RNA to proteins occurs in the ribosome. The genetic code is made of four base pairs: adenine, cytosine, uracil, and guanine and is redundant meaning multiple combinations of these base pairs (which are read in triplicate) produce the same amino acid. Proteomics and genomics are fields in biology that come out of the study of molecular genetics and the Central Dogma.
Document 7 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 8 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 9 ::: The College Board suggested a year-long course in biology at the college preparatory level, as well as a one-year course in algebra, and lab experience as preparation for the test. The test required understanding of biological data and concepts, science-related terms, and the ability to effectively synthesize and interpret data from charts, maps, and other visual media. However, most questions from this test were derived from, or are similar to, the pre-2012 AP Biology multiple choice questions. By taking an AP class or a class with similar rigor, one's chances at doing well on this test should have improved.
Document 10 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
|
40
|
What must replicate in the cell cycle before meiosis i takes place?
|
[
"A. meiotic fluid",
"B. dna",
"C. cell walls",
"D. sperm"
] |
B. dna
|
Document 1 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 2 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 3 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 4 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 5 ::: The biology of T. vaginalis has implications for understanding the origin of sexual reproduction in eukaryotes. T. vaginalis is not known to undergo meiosis, a key stage of the eukaryotic sexual cycle. However, when Malik et al. examined T. vaginalis for the presence of 29 genes known to function in meiosis, they found 27 such genes, including eight of nine genes that are specific to meiosis in model organisms.
Document 6 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 7 ::: The College Board suggested a year-long course in biology at the college preparatory level, as well as a one-year course in algebra, and lab experience as preparation for the test. The test required understanding of biological data and concepts, science-related terms, and the ability to effectively synthesize and interpret data from charts, maps, and other visual media. However, most questions from this test were derived from, or are similar to, the pre-2012 AP Biology multiple choice questions. By taking an AP class or a class with similar rigor, one's chances at doing well on this test should have improved.
Document 8 ::: metabolism metamorphosis metaphase The third phase of mitosis, in which duplicated genetic material carried in the nucleus of a parent cell is separated into two identical daughter cells. During metaphase, the cell's chromosomes align themselves in the middle of the cell through a type of cellular "tug of war". microbiology The study of microscopic organisms, such as bacteria, viruses, archaea, fungi and protozoa.
Document 9 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 10 ::: Experiment: Rosalind Franklin used pure DNA to perform X-ray diffraction to produce photo 51. The results showed an X-shape. Analysis: When Watson saw the detailed diffraction pattern, he immediately recognized it as a helix. He and Crick then produced their model, using this information along with the previously known information about DNA's composition, especially Chargaff's rules of base pairing.The discovery became the starting point for many further studies involving the genetic material, such as the field of molecular genetics, and it was awarded the Nobel Prize in 1962. Each step of the example is examined in more detail later in the article.
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41
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What phenomenon is primarily the result of plate tectonic motions?
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[
"A. volcanoes",
"B. tsunamis",
"C. earthquake",
"D. eruption"
] |
C. earthquake
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Document 1 ::: : 715 "Gravity, geology, and the specific orbit of the moon lead to the tidal patterns of the Earth's oceans and thus to both the environment in which early life evolved and in which tsunamis bring death and destruction to countless thousands of people". : 717–718 Holmes Rolston III says nature embodies 'redemptive suffering' as exemplified by Jesus.
Document 2 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 3 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 4 ::: How do mineral, and metal ore deposits form? What are the fundamental physics of plate tectonics and heat, mass, and fluid transfer through Earth's crust? How can people better interpret geophysical data used to determine the structure and properties of Earth's crust?
Document 5 ::: P1 Astronomy P2 Geodesy P3 Geophysics P4 Meteorology P5 Geology P6 Mineralogy P7 Oceanography P9 Physiography
Document 6 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 7 ::: Some use their knowledge about Earth processes such as volcanoes, earthquakes, and hurricanes to help protect people from these dangerous events. Earth sciences can include the study of geology, the lithosphere, and the large-scale structure of Earth's interior, as well as the atmosphere, hydrosphere, and biosphere. Typically, Earth scientists use tools from geology, chronology, physics, chemistry, geography, biology, and mathematics to build a quantitative understanding of how Earth works and evolves.
Document 8 ::: Hestenes (1998) found that while "nearly 80% of the could state Newton's Third Law at the beginning of the course, FCI data showed that less than 15% of them fully understood it at the end". These results have been replicated in a number of studies involving students at a range of institutions (see sources section below), and have led to greater recognition in the physics education research community of the importance of students' "active engagement" with the materials to be mastered. The 1995 version has 30 five-way multiple choice questions.Example question (question 4): A large truck collides head-on with a small compact car.
Document 9 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 10 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
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